FPSC TEST PREPARATION
FIA INSPECTOR (BS-16) • 100 MCQS
FPSC FIA Inspector English Test Preparation - 100 Solved MCQs
100 Most Repeated & High-Yield English MCQs for FPSC FIA Inspector (BS-16) & Assistant Director (BS-17) recruitment tests. Practice prepositions, legal vocabulary, active-passive voice, narration, idioms, spellings, and syntax rules with instant feedback.
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Q1
The FIA investigation officer was completely absorbed ______ examining the cyber financial records.
Explanation: The adjective 'absorbed' (meaning deeply engaged or engrossed) takes the preposition 'in'.
Q2
The suspect refused to plead guilty and was acquitted ______ all charges of corruption.
Explanation: The legal verb 'acquitted' is followed by 'of' (acquitted of a crime or charge).
Q3
The newly appointed inspector is immune ______ political pressure during the enquiry.
Explanation: When 'immune' denotes resistant to influence or unaffected by something, it takes 'to' (immune to criticism/pressure).
Q4
The official report was strictly conformable ______ the statutory provisions of the FIA Act.
Explanation: The adjective 'conformable' takes the preposition 'to' (conformable to rules/statutes).
Q5
The suspect connived ______ the customs officials to facilitate illegal human trafficking.
Explanation: 'Connive with' means to conspire or cooperate secretly with someone in an illicit act.
Q6
The findings of the preliminary enquiry are identical ______ the statements recorded earlier.
Explanation: In formal English grammar, 'identical' takes 'with' (or 'to', with 'identical with' being standard in FPSC).
Q7
The accused person could not account ______ the surplus assets in his bank account.
Explanation: The phrasal verb 'account for' means to provide an explanation or justification for something.
Q8
The court took strong cognizance ______ the money laundering syndicate.
Explanation: The legal phrase 'take cognizance of' means to take judicial or authoritative notice of a matter.
Q9
The director general was vested ______ full statutory powers to conduct special investigations.
Explanation: A person is 'vested with' authority or powers; authority is 'vested in' an institution or office.
Q10
The evidence submitted by the forensic agency is pertinent ______ the cybercrime case.
Explanation: 'Pertinent' (meaning relevant or applicable) takes the preposition 'to'.
Q11
What is the synonym of the word 'NEPOTISM'?
Explanation: 'Nepotism' refers to the practice among those with influence of favoring relatives or friends, especially by giving jobs.
Q12
What is the synonym of the word 'SURREPTITIOUS'?
Explanation: 'Surreptitious' describes actions kept secret, especially because they would not be approved of.
Q13
What is the synonym of the word 'EMBEZZLE'?
Explanation: 'Embezzle' means to steal or misappropriate funds placed in one's trust or belonging to one's employer.
Q14
What is the synonym of the word 'VERACITY'?
Explanation: 'Veracity' means conformity to facts; habitual truthfulness and accuracy.
Q15
What is the synonym of the word 'COGNIZANT'?
Explanation: 'Cognizant' means having knowledge or being fully aware of something.
Q16
What is the synonym of the word 'ABROGATE'?
Explanation: 'Abrogate' means to repeal, abolish, or annul an official law, agreement, or formal treaty.
Q17
What is the synonym of the word 'LACONIC'?
Explanation: 'Laconic' describes a concise style of speech using very few words to express complex meaning.
Q18
What is the synonym of the word 'PERFIDIOUS'?
Explanation: 'Perfidious' means deceitful and untrustworthy; characterized by treachery.
Q19
What is the synonym of the word 'OBDURATE'?
Explanation: 'Obdurate' means stubbornly refusing to change one's opinion or course of action.
Q20
What is the synonym of the word 'EXONERATE'?
Explanation: 'Exonerate' means to officially absolve someone from blame, guilt, or criminal responsibility.
Q21
What is the antonym of the word 'EQUIVOCAL'?
Explanation: 'Equivocal' means open to more than one interpretation or intentionally misleading; its opposite is unambiguous or clear.
Q22
What is the antonym of the word 'CULPABLE'?
Explanation: 'Culpable' means deserving blame or considered responsible for a wrongdoing; antonym is innocent.
Q23
What is the antonym of the word 'MALICIOUS'?
Explanation: 'Malicious' means intending or intended to do harm; its direct antonym is benevolent, charitable, or benign.
Q24
What is the antonym of the word 'CORROBORATE'?
Explanation: 'Corroborate' means to confirm or give support to a statement or finding; its antonym is refute or disprove.
Q25
What is the antonym of the word 'PERFUNCTORY'?
Explanation: 'Perfunctory' means carried out with a minimum of effort or reflection; antonym is thorough or meticulous.
Q26
What is the antonym of the word 'GARRULOUS'?
Explanation: 'Garrulous' means excessively talkative, especially on trivial matters; antonym is taciturn or reticent.
Q27
What is the antonym of the word 'SANGUINE'?
Explanation: 'Sanguine' means optimistic or positive, especially in an apparently bad situation; antonym is pessimistic.
Q28
What is the antonym of the word 'ESOTERIC'?
Explanation: 'Esoteric' means intended for or likely to be understood by only a small number of people; antonym is exoteric or common.
Q29
What is the antonym of the word 'NEFARIOUS'?
Explanation: 'Nefarious' means wicked, villainous, or criminal; its direct antonym is virtuous, honorable, or exemplary.
Q30
What is the antonym of the word 'AUSPICIOUS'?
Explanation: 'Auspicious' means giving or being a sign of future success; its opposite is ominous or inauspicious.
Q31
Choose the correct passive voice: 'The FIA inspector will interrogate the accused tomorrow.'
Explanation: Simple future active ('will + V1') changes into 'will be + V3' in the passive voice.
Q32
Choose the correct passive voice: 'The forensic experts have detected forged passport stamps.'
Explanation: Present perfect active ('have detected') converts to 'have/has been + V3' in passive.
Q33
Choose the correct passive voice: 'Who leaked the confidential inquiry report?'
Explanation: Interrogative 'Who' becomes 'By whom', followed by past auxiliary 'was' + subject + V3 ('leaked').
Q34
Choose the correct passive voice: 'The authorities must seize all illegal bank accounts.'
Explanation: Modal active ('must + V1') converts to 'must be + V3' in passive.
Q35
Choose the correct passive voice: 'They were examining the counterfeit currency notes.'
Explanation: Past continuous active ('were examining') converts to 'were being examined' in passive.
Q36
Choose the correct passive voice: 'Produce the documented evidence before the magistrate.'
Explanation: Imperative legal orders convert using 'Let + Object + be + V3'.
Q37
Choose the correct active voice: 'A detailed charge-sheet was submitted by the investigating team.'
Explanation: Past simple passive ('was submitted') converts back into active past simple ('submitted').
Q38
Choose the correct passive voice: 'One should respect the laws of the state.'
Explanation: With vague pronoun 'one', 'by one' is conventionally omitted in formal English passive constructions.
Q39
Choose the correct passive voice: 'The cyber wing had traced the suspicious IP address before the raid.'
Explanation: Past perfect active ('had traced') converts to 'had been + V3' ('had been traced').
Q40
Choose the correct active voice: 'The warrant has not yet been executed by the local police.'
Explanation: Present perfect passive ('has not yet been executed') converts to active 'has not yet executed'.
Q41
Change into indirect speech: The magistrate said to the witness, 'Speak the truth and do not conceal any facts.'
Explanation: Imperative reporting verb becomes 'ordered', followed by infinitive 'to speak' and negative infinitive 'not to conceal'.
Q42
Change into indirect speech: The accused said, 'I did not accept any bribe from the contractor.'
Explanation: Simple past ('did not accept') converts to past perfect ('had not accepted') in reported speech.
Q43
Change into indirect speech: The inspector asked the suspect, 'Why were you present near the crime scene last night?'
Explanation: Past continuous/state ('were you') shifts to past perfect ('had been'), and 'last night' becomes 'the previous night'.
Q44
Change into indirect speech: The director said, 'The constitution guarantees fundamental rights to all citizens.'
Explanation: Constitutional statutes, universal legal principles, and permanent facts maintain their present tense in indirect speech.
Q45
Change into indirect speech: The officer said to his subordinate, 'Submit the forensic report without delay.'
Explanation: Official administrative instructions use 'directed/ordered + to + V1'.
Q46
Change into indirect speech: The auditor said, 'I have detected several discrepancies in the expenditure ledger.'
Explanation: Present perfect ('have detected') shifts to past perfect ('had detected').
Q47
Change into indirect speech: The officer asked, 'Does the suspect possess a valid travel passport?'
Explanation: Yes/No interrogatives take 'whether' or 'if', and simple present ('does possess') shifts to simple past ('possessed').
Q48
Change into indirect speech: He said, 'Alas! The vital electronic evidence has been destroyed.'
Explanation: 'Alas!' converts into 'exclaimed with sorrow/grief that', followed by past perfect tense ('had been destroyed').
Q49
Change into indirect speech: The lawyer said, 'My client will challenge this verdict in the high court.'
Explanation: 'Will' shifts to 'would', 'my' shifts to 'his', and demonstrative 'this' shifts to 'that'.
Q50
Change into indirect speech: The judge said to the clerk, 'Call the next petitioner into the courtroom.'
Explanation: Formal judicial command converts to 'ordered + object + to + V1'.
Q51
A legal written statement made under oath before an authorized official is called an ______.
Explanation: An affidavit is a written declaration or statement of facts confirmed by oath or affirmation before an authorized officer.
Q52
A formal written order issued by a court commanding someone to appear as a witness is a ______.
Explanation: A subpoena is a writ ordering a person to attend court and testify under penalty of law.
Q53
The willful giving of false testimony under oath in a judicial proceeding is defined as ______.
Explanation: Perjury is the criminal offense of deliberately making a false statement under an official legal oath.
Q54
The act of making a deceitful imitation of a genuine document or signature with intent to defraud is ______.
Explanation: Forgery is the creation or altering of a written document or signature with intention to deceive.
Q55
An official pardon granted by the state for offenses, especially political crimes, is called ______.
Explanation: Amnesty is an official general pardon granted by a government to a group of persons convicted of offenses.
Q56
The practice of obtaining money or favor through threats, intimidation, or abuse of power is ______.
Explanation: Extortion involves coercing payment or compliance through the wrongful use of actual or threatened force or authority.
Q57
A public officer authorized to conduct formal investigations into cases of sudden or suspicious deaths is a ______.
Explanation: A coroner is a government official whose primary function is to investigate deaths occurring under unusual circumstances.
Q58
The temporary release of an accused person awaiting trial upon payment of guaranteed security is ______.
Explanation: Bail is the temporary release of an indicted or arrested individual on condition of financial security.
Q59
The legal procedure of surrendering an alleged criminal from one sovereign state to another is ______.
Explanation: Extradition is the formal surrender of a person accused or convicted of a crime by one nation to another.
Q60
A judicial order restraining a person from beginning or continuing an action that threatens or invades legal rights is an ______.
Explanation: An injunction is an authoritative judicial warning or order restraining a designated activity.
Q61
What is the meaning of the idiom 'To grease someone's palm'?
Explanation: 'To grease someone's palm' is a common idiom meaning to give a bribe to an official to secure an illegal advantage.
Q62
What is the meaning of the idiom 'Caught red-handed'?
Explanation: 'Caught red-handed' originates from arresting a criminal with immediate undeniable physical evidence on their person.
Q63
What is the meaning of the idiom 'To play devil's advocate'?
Explanation: Playing devil's advocate means putting forward an opposing argument solely to provoke thorough debate or test validity.
Q64
What is the meaning of the idiom 'Under a cloud'?
Explanation: If someone is 'under a cloud', they are viewed with suspicion or distrust following a questionable act.
Q65
What is the meaning of the idiom 'A white elephant'?
Explanation: 'A white elephant' refers to a burdensome possession or project whose cost of upkeep exceeds its actual value.
Q66
What is the meaning of the idiom 'To smell a rat'?
Explanation: 'To smell a rat' means to recognize that something is suspicious, dishonest, or wrongful.
Q67
What is the meaning of the idiom 'Bone of contention'?
Explanation: 'Bone of contention' refers to the primary unresolved point of dispute between parties.
Q68
What is the meaning of the idiom 'To nip in the bud'?
Explanation: 'Nip in the bud' means to halt an evil or illegal development before it has an opportunity to mature.
Q69
What is the meaning of the idiom 'To bury the hatchet'?
Explanation: 'Bury the hatchet' is an old idiom signifying the cessation of hostilities and reconciliation.
Q70
What is the meaning of the idiom 'To blow the whistle'?
Explanation: 'To blow the whistle' means to expose illicit, illegal, or corrupt practices occurring within an organization to legal authorities.
Q71
Select the correctly spelled word among the options:
Explanation: The correct administrative spelling is B-U-R-E-A-U-C-R-A-C-Y.
Q72
Select the correctly spelled word among the options:
Explanation: The correct spelling requires double 'r' and double 's': E-M-B-A-R-R-A-S-S-M-E-N-T.
Q73
Select the correctly spelled word among the options:
Explanation: The correct spelling requires double 'n': Q-U-E-S-T-I-O-N-N-A-I-R-E.
Q74
Select the correctly spelled word among the options:
Explanation: The adjective meaning wishing to do what is right is spelled C-O-N-S-C-I-E-N-T-I-O-U-S.
Q75
Select the correctly spelled word among the options:
Explanation: Meaning unintentional or accidental, the correct spelling is I-N-A-D-V-E-R-T-E-N-T (ends in 'ent').
Q76
Select the correctly spelled word among the options:
Explanation: The state power term is spelled S-O-V-E-R-E-I-G-N-T-Y.
Q77
Select the correctly spelled word among the options:
Explanation: The legal term for a minor wrongdoing is spelled M-I-S-D-E-M-E-A-N-O-R (or Commonwealth: Misdemeanour).
Q78
Select the correctly spelled word among the options:
Explanation: The administrative chain of command is spelled H-I-E-R-A-R-C-H-Y ('i' before 'e').
Q79
Select the correctly spelled word among the options:
Explanation: The term for forged currency is spelled C-O-U-N-T-E-R-F-E-I-T ('e' before 'i').
Q80
Select the correctly spelled word among the options:
Explanation: Meaning hostile and aggressive, the spelling is B-E-L-L-I-G-E-R-E-N-T (double 'l', ends in 'ent').
Q81
Neither the investigating officer nor his assistants ______ willing to compromise on the evidence.
Explanation: In 'Neither... nor' subjects, the verb agrees with the plural subject closer to it ('assistants were').
Q82
The Director along with five senior inspectors ______ attending the high-level security conference.
Explanation: When subjects are joined by 'along with', 'as well as', or 'together with', the verb agrees with the primary subject ('Director is').
Q83
Hardly had the FIA team raided the counterfeit currency unit ______ the operators fled through the rear exit.
Explanation: 'Hardly had... when' is the correct correlative conjunction pairing (not 'than').
Q84
No sooner had the suspect entered the airport terminal ______ the immigration authorities apprehended him.
Explanation: 'No sooner had' requires the correlative conjunction 'than'.
Q85
Had the intelligence agency received timely alert, they ______ the illegal transaction.
Explanation: In third conditional sentences (past unreal condition: 'Had + V3'), the main clause takes 'would have + V3'.
Q86
Every citizen, regardless of status, ______ equal protection under the law.
Explanation: 'Every' modifies a singular noun ('citizen'), requiring the third-person singular present verb 'deserves'.
Q87
The jury ______ divided in their verdicts regarding the culpability of the accused.
Explanation: A collective noun taking divergent or divided individual actions takes a plural verb ('were').
Q88
He spoke as though he ______ the sole authority to issue the freezing orders.
Explanation: Hypothetical or unreal comparisons introduced by 'as though' / 'as if' take the subjunctive verb 'were'.
Q89
The number of cybercrime complaints received by the agency ______ steadily over the past year.
Explanation: 'The number of' always takes a singular verb ('has increased'), unlike 'A number of' which takes a plural verb.
Q90
It is imperative that every inspector ______ the standard operating procedures strictly.
Explanation: The mandative subjunctive mood following adjectives like 'imperative/vital/essential that' requires base form verb 'follow'.
Q91
Identify the grammatically correct sentence among the following:
Explanation: In the construction 'one of those [plural noun] who', the relative pronoun 'who' refers to the plural antecedent ('officers'), taking plural verb 'have'.
Q92
Identify the grammatically correct sentence among the following:
Explanation: The preposition 'between' requires objective case pronouns ('you and me', not 'you and I').
Q93
Identify the grammatically correct sentence regarding comparison:
Explanation: To avoid faulty comparison between an inanimate entity ('salary') and a person ('sub-inspector'), the demonstrative 'that of' is mandatory.
Q94
Which sentence contains the correct usage of the conjunction 'lest'?
Explanation: 'Lest' means 'for fear that' and is always followed by the modal 'should' without an additional negative word.
Q95
What is the plural form of the Latin legal term 'CORPUS DELICTI'?
Explanation: The Latin plural of the noun phrase 'corpus delicti' (body of the crime) is 'corpora delicti'.
Q96
Identify the part of speech of the underlined word: 'The accused gave a **sworn** statement.'
Explanation: 'Sworn' is the past participle of 'swear', functioning as an attributive adjective modifying 'statement'.
Q97
Which sentence is punctuated and phrased with absolute correctness?
Explanation: Both singular abstract nouns joined by 'Neither... nor' require a singular verb ('is acceptable').
Q98
What is the correct meaning of the Latin legal maxim 'MENS REA'?
Explanation: 'Mens rea' is a cardinal legal concept referring to criminal intent or mental state accompanying a wrongful act (actus reus).
Q99
What is the correct meaning of the Latin legal maxim 'PRIMA FACIE'?
Explanation: 'Prima facie' denotes evidence sufficient to establish a fact unless rebutted by contrary evidence.
Q100
Choose the correct sentence regarding conditional consequence:
Explanation: First conditional structures require simple present in the 'if' clause ('confesses') and future simple ('will record') in the main clause.
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